Want to know:
61.A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptics for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action should the nurse initiate?A) Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor carefully. B) Immediately transfer the client to ICU. C) Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and record on the client's chart. D) No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such drugs.
Get a detailed, AI-powered explanation for this question and thousands more on StudyFetch.
Get the Answer for FreeHow StudyFetch Helps You Master This Topic
AI-Powered Answers
Get instant, detailed explanations powered by AI that understands your course material.
Deep Understanding
Go beyond surface-level answers with step-by-step breakdowns and examples.
Personalized Learning
Spark.E adapts to your learning style and helps you connect ideas.
Practice & Test
Turn any question into flashcards, quizzes, and practice tests to solidify your knowledge.
Explore More Questions
- Within a data classification scheme, "comprehensive" means that an information asset should fit in only one category.
- In 1055 A.D. a group of Turks known as the "___________" attacked and took control of Baghdad from the Persians.
- As a result of lifting a load a 62-year-old female felt acute pain in the lumbar region, in a buttock, posterolateral surface of her right thigh, external surface of the right shin and dorsal surface of foot. Objectively: weakness of the anterior tibial muscle, long extensor muscle of the right toes, short extensor muscle of the right toes. Low Achilles reflex on the right. Positive Lasegue's sign. What examination method would be the most effective for specification of the diagnosis of discogenic compression of L5 root?