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A 45 year old male builder presents with a reducible swelling of the left groin. An inguinal hernia isdiagnosed. At operation he is found to have an indirect inguinal hernia. Which of the following is true?A. The hernial defect is medial to the inferior epigastric arteryB. The hernial sac passes through the internal ringC. The hernial sac passes through the external ringD. Ligation of the sac is the definitive treatmentE. All of the above
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