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A 60 year old man presents with a left foot drop. Which of the following conditions is UNLIKELY to be theexplanation for this?A. An L5-S1 nerve root lesion.B. A common peroneal nerve lesionC. Mononeuritis multiplex secondary to Churg-Strauss vasculitisD. Prolonged corticosteroid use to treat COPDE. Diabetes mellitus
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